BUSINESS Law Paper

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Group II
BUSINESS Law Paper – I
Fundamental Principles of Law of Contract and Allied Laws
Sample Multiple Choice Questions
Put (√) across the right option
1. Promises which form the consideration or part of the consideration for each other are
called as ——————
1. Mutual promises
2. Reciprocal promises
3. Promises
4. Written Promises
2. Performance of the conditions of a proposal, or the acceptance of any consideration for a
reciprocal promise which may be offered with a proposal, is an ——————- of the
proposal
1. Acceptance
2. Mutual Acceptance
3. Written Acceptance
4. Reciprocal Promise
3. All agreements are —————— if they are made by the free consent of parties
competent to contract, for a lawful consideration and with a lawful object, and are not
hereby expressly declared to be void.
1. Standard forms of contracts
2. Contracts
3. Enforceable Contracts
4. Quasi contracts.
4. When, at the desire of the promisor, the promisee or any other person has done or
abstained from doing, or does or abstains from doing, or promises to do or to abstain from
doing, something, such act or abstinence or promise is called a consideration for the promise
is defined under ——————
1. Section 2(e)

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2. Section 2(f)
3. Section 2 (a)
4. Section 2(d)
5. Every promise and every set of promises, —————————————– is an
agreement
1. In exchange for each another
2. Forming the consideration for each other
3. Mutually agreed
4. Partially agreed
6. When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, fraud or misrepresentation, the
agreement is a contract ———————— whose consent was so caused.
1. valid
2. void ab initio
3. Legally enforceable
4. voidable at the option of the party.
7. A —————— is a contract to do or not to do something, if some event, collateral to
such contract, does or does not happen.
1. Contingent contract
2. Quasi Contract
3. Express of Implied Contract
4. Indemnity Contract
8. A person who finds goods belonging to another, and takes them into his custody, is
subject to the same responsibility as a
1. Bailor
2. Indemnifier
3. Bailee
4. Guarantor
9. If the parties to a contract agree to ——— a new contract for it, or to rescind or alter it,
the original contract, need not be performed.

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1. Alter
2. Amend
3. Substitute
4. Modify
10. When an agreement is discovered to be void, or when a contract becomes void, any
person who has received any ——— under such agreement or contract is bound to restore
it, or to make compensation for it to the person from whom he received it.
1. Advantage
2. Benefit
3. Consideration
4. Favour
Answer key
1. —— 2. 2. —————- 1. 3. ————– 2
4.—– 4 5. ————- 2. 6. ———–2.
7.——–1 8. ———– 3. 9. ———-3
10. ——2.

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Group II – BUSINESS Law
PAPER II—GLOBAL TRADE UNDER WORLD TRADE ORGANISATION
Sample Multiple Choice Questions
Put (√) across the right option
1. The Bretton Woods Conference, formally known as the ————————————
—–, held in Bretton Woods, New Hampshire, United States from July 1 to 22,
1944
, in which 730 delegates from all 44 Allied nations participated.
1. United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference
2. United Nations Human Rights Conference
3. United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development
4. United Nations Conference on the World Financial and Economic Crisis and Its
Impact on Development.
2. In, ———— the World Trade Organization, a formal international organization to
regulate trade, was established. It is the most important development in the history of
international trade law.
1. 1995
2. 1997
3. 1999
4. 2001
3. The purposes and structure of the organization is governed by the Agreement
Establishing the World Trade Organization, also known as the —————————-
———–. It does not specify the actual rules that govern international trade in specific
areas.
1.
Marrakesh Agreement.
2. General Agreement on Trade and Tariff
3.
North American Free Trade Agreement.
4. The World Trade Organization Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights
(TRIPS)
4. ————– —————————-is a basic principle of GATT/WTO that prohibits
discrimination between imported and domestically produced goods with respect to
internal taxation or other government regulation.

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1. National treatment
2. Trade Embargo
3. Free Trade
4. Special and differential treatment
5. ———- —————————- —- ensures that every time a WTO Member lowers
a trade barrier or opens up a market, it has to do so for the like goods or services from
all WTO Members, without regard of the Members‘ economic size or level of
development.
1. The Most Favoured Nation principles.
2.
Cross Border Transactions
3. Principles of International Trade Laws
4. All of the Above.
6. The purpose of ————————————- is to safeguard national financial interests
preventing capital flight, commercial fraud, and customs duty evasion, for instance and to
compensate for inadequacies in administrative infrastructures.
1. Pre- Shipment Inspection
2. Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMs) Agreement
3. Import Licensing
4. Valuation of Goods at Customs
7.
The WTO secretariat, based in —————- has around 600 staff and is headed by a
Director-General.
1. Geneva,
2.Urugay,
3. London,
4. Venice,
8.
The Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures sets out the basic rules
for ———————————————–

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1. protecting intellectual property rights
2. food safety and animal and plant health standards.
3. customized goods
4. settlement of disputes
9. —————————
is an international treaty of the World Trade Organization
1. Agreement on Agriculture (AoA)
2. Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights
3.
The United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL)
4. T
ransPacific Partnership Agreement
10. ———————–is the central pillar of the multilateral trading system, and the WTO‘s
unique contribution to the stability of the global economy
1. Dispute settlement
2. Negotiation
3. Trade Restrictions
4. Parallel Imports.
Answer key
1. –—– 1
2. —– 1
3. —— 2
4. —— 1
5. —–2
6. —— 1
7.— 1.
8. 2
9. — 1 10. ——— 1

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Group – II BUSINESS Law
PAPER III — CORPORATE LAW
Sample
Multiple Choice Questions
Put (√) across the right option
1. Section 203 of the Companies Act 2013 deals with the appointment of a ——————.
1.Trustee
2. Company secretary
3. Director
4. Promoter
2. Indian company law make it ————— for every Indian listed, and every other entity
having more than rupees ten crore (100 million) paid up capital, to have a whole
time company secretary
1. Mandatory
2. Optional
3. Exclusive
4. Compulsory
3. The
National Company Law Tribunal is a ——————————- in India that
adjudicates issues relating to Indian companies. The tribunal was established under
the Companies Act 2013 and was constituted on 1 June 2016 by the government of India.
1. Judicial body
2. Executive Body
3. Quasi-judicial body
4. State
4.The Charter of the Company is known as —————————-
1. Bye laws
2. Memorandum of Association
3. Articles of Association
4. Prospectus

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5. The name of the Company can be changed by ———————
1. Ordinary resolution
2. Special resolution
3. With approval of Union Government
4. A special resolution with approval of Central Government
6.
An act of the company must not be beyond the object clause otherwise it will be ——
———————- and cannot be ratified even if all the member wish to ratify.
1. ultra vires and therefore, void
2. voidable
3. illegal
4. intra vires.
7. The share capital of a Company may be reduced by ———————-
1. An ordinary Resolution
2. Special Resolution
3. A resolution of the Board of Directors
4. With permission from the Company Law Board
8. The ————- on equity share in not cumulative.
1. Percentage
2. Dividend
3. Profit
4. Loss
9. A person cannot act as a managing director in more than ——- Company
1. one
2. two
3. four
4. five

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10.The amount of minimum subscription may be learnt by ——————–
1. memorandum
2. articles
3. prospectus
4. records of general meetings.
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Answer key
1. —— 2 2. ———————– 1
3. ——- 3 4. ———————– 2
5.———4 6. —————- 1.
7.———- 2 8. —————– 2
9. ——2 10. ———– 3.
Group II ——– Business law
Paper IV
LAWS RELATING TO Customs and Foreign Exchange
Multiple Choice Questions Sample
1. ———– ————— means any authority competent to pass any order
or decision under Customs Act 1962, but does not include the Board,
[Commissioner (Appeals)] or Appellate Tribunal.
1. Competent Authority
2. Adjudicating authority
3. Quasi-Judicial Authority

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4. Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
2. ——————————————————- means the [waters
extending into the sea up to the limit of contiguous zone of India under
section 5 of the Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive
Economic Zone and other Maritime Zones Act, 1976 (80 of 1976) and
includes any bay, gulf, harbour, creek or tidal river;]
1. Territorial waters
2. Free Economic Zones
3. Harbour or creek
4. Indian customs waters
3. “illegal import” means the import of any goods in ———— of the
provisions of this Act or any other law for the time being in force;
1. Contravention
2. Accordance
3. Support
4. All of the above
4. The exporter of any goods shall make entry thereof by presenting to the
proper officer in the case of goods to be exported in a vessel or aircraft, a
——————-, and in the case of goods to be exported by land, a bill of
export in the prescribed form.
1. Bill of Lading
2. Shipping bill
3. Clearance Receipt
4. Insurance Premium Receipt

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5. ——————————————————————— are the two primary statutes
that govern the entry and exit of goods into or from the country.
1. The Customs Act 1962 and the Customs Tariff Act, 1975
2. Sale of Good Act, 1930
3. Indian Contract Act, 1860
4. Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017
6. ‘EXIM Bank’ means the ———————– established under the Export-Import Bank of
India Act, 1981 (28 of 1981);
1. Export-Import Bank of India
2. Export Import House
3. State Bank OF India
4. Export import Policy
7. ‘Export’ includes the taking or sending out of goods by land, sea or air, on consignment or
by way of sale, lease, hire-purchase, or under any other arrangement by whatever name
called, and in the case of software, also includes transmission through any —————–
1. Social Media
2. Electronic Media
3. Digital Media
4. Print Media
8. ‗Export value’ in relation to export by way of lease or hire-purchase or under any other
similar arrangement, includes the ———–, by whatever name called, payable in respect of
such lease or hire-purchase or any other similar arrangement.
1. Deficits
2. Loans
3. Charges
4. Premium

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9. The purpose of ———————– is to control the flow of goods, transports and personal
effects into (Import) and out (Export) of a country. Every country has own laws and
regulation on Import and Export which is enforced by its customs authority.
1. Custom Duty
2. Customs Law
3. Customary Norms
4. Custom Tariff
10. ——————————– defines
“prohibited goods” means any goods the import or export
of which is subject to any prohibition under this Act or any other law for the time being in force but
does not include any such goods in respect of which the cond itions subject to which the goods are
permitted to be imported or exported have been complied with;
1. Section 2 (33) of Customs Act 1962
2. Section 2(34) of Customs Act 1962
3. Section 2(31) of Customs Act 1962
4. Section 2(12) of Customs Act 1962
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Answer key
1. ——- 1 2.———— 4
3. ——— 1. 4. —– — —- —2
5. ——— 1. 6. ——– 1.
7. ——– 2. 8. ——-3
9. ——- 2. 10. ——- 1.
Group II ——– Business law
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Paper V – MCQs on Law of Insurance 2020 Online Exam.
1. The IRD Act has established the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
(―IRDA‖ or ―Authority‖) as a statutory regulator to regulate and promote the
insurance industry in India and to protect the interests of holders of —————
1. Foreign Direct Investments
2. Insurance policies.
3. Fixed Deposits
4. Mutual Funds
2. For the purposes of calculating the investments, the amount of deposits made with the
RBI by the insurer in respect of his life insurance business shall be deemed to be —–
—– invested in Government securities.
1. Returns
2. Capital
3. Assets
4. Stock
3. Insurance companies and insurance agents, in India, are subject to tax for the ———-
—————————– received by them respectively, under the Indian Income Tax
Act, 1963 (―Income Tax Act‖).
1. Premiums and the commissions
2. Annuity
3. Gratuity.
4. Pension
4. Insurance helps to ————————————–
1. Prevent adverse situations from occurring
2. Reduce the financial consequences of adverse situations
3. Negate all consequences of adverse situations
4. Make assets continuously productive.

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5. Which of the following terms matches closest with ‗Family Floater‘?
1. Health insurance
2. Property insurance
3. Accidental injury
4. Consequential loss
6. In cases where a Life Insurance Agent collects the premium from the policyholder
and remits it to the insurer‘s office, he is acting as an agent of _____
1. IRDA
2. The Insurance Company
3. The Policyholder
4. The broker
7. A policy where the policyholder makes a one-time payment of premium, is known as
______________
1. Money-back policy
2. Single premium policy
3. Salary Savings Scheme policy
4. Half-yearly policy.
8. As per structured formula under the Motor Vehicle Act, victims of fatal injuries are
paid compensation on the basis of:
1. Age and sex
2. Age and number of dependents
3. Income and size of family
4. Age and income
9. The minimum paid up capital required for a General Insurance Company is Rs. ____
1. 25 crores
2. 50 crores
3. 75 crores

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4. 100 crores
10. ……… principle in insurance means maximum truth.
1. subrogation
2. causa Proxima
3. insurable interest
4. uberrima fides
Answer key
1. —– 2 2——- 3
3. ——- 1 4. ——–2
5. ——- 1 6. ——- 2
7. ——- 2 8. —— 4
9. ———– 4 10. ——— 4
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Group II ——– Business law
Paper VI- MCQs
on Banking Law 2020 Online Exam.
1. The Reserve Bank of India was established in the year
1. 1949
2. 1954
3. 1935
4. 1934.
2. Co-operative Credit banks function in India at
1. Central
2. State
3. Primary at village level
4. All of the above.
3. Six banks having demand and time liabilities exceeding —- crores were nationalized
in 1980
1. 200
2. 500
3. 700
4. 150
4. Commercial Banks do not perform
1. Availability of Credit
2. Promotion of trade
3. Banker to the Government
4. Regional development.

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5. Central bank does not
1. Custodian of cash reserves
2. Deal with customers directly
3. Monopoly of note issue
4. Maintains international currency.
6. Business which the RBI may transact is provided in Section
1. 12.
2. 17
3. 7.
4. 35
7. Instruments of Credit Control
1. Bank rate
2. Open market operations
3. Variable Cash Reserve Ratio
4. All of the above.
8. Unit banking, Branch banking, Group banking and Mixed banking are
1. Structure of Commercial Banks
2. Types of Banks
3. None of the above
4. All of the above.
9. Similarity between Central Bank and Commercial Bank is
1. Branch expansion
2. Deal in money
3. Controller of credit
4. None of the above.
10. The RBI has
1. Issue Department
2. Agricultural Department
3. Department of reserves and statistics

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4. All of the above.
Answer key
1. ——-3. 2. —— 4
3. ——–1. 4. ———3.
5. ———- 2. 6. ——— 2.
7. ——— 4. 8. ——— 1.
9. ——– 2. 10. ———– 4.
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